My lovely gray-faced darling, please do not take a biblical verse out of context. Neither should you rely solely on the English translation to make whatever point it is that you are trying to make. 

FIRST, let’s go ahead and bring the context of the passage in. First in NIV and then in ASV. (I just picked two popular translations. One that translates it as rape and one that doesn’t.)

 ”But if out in the country a man happens to meet a young woman pledged to be married and rapes her, only the man who has done this shall die. ²⁶ Do nothing to the woman; she has committed no sin deserving death. This case is like that of someone who attacks and murders a neighbor, ²⁷ for the man found the young woman out in the country, and though the betrothed woman screamed, there was no one to rescue her.²⁸ If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered,²⁹ he shall pay her father fifty shekels^[c] of silver. He must marry the young woman, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.” NIV

“But if the man find the damsel that is betrothed in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her; then the man only that lay with her shall die:26 but unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbor, and slayeth him, even so is this matter;27 for he found her in the field, the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.²⁸ If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, that is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;²⁹ then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel’s father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he hath humbled her; he may not put her away all his days.” ASV

This part of the passage is talking about violating marriage. Verse 23-24 talks about punishing people who have an affair. Verse 25 is where things get interesting. Keep in mind that the Bible was not written in English. Unfortunately, the English language can, at times, be a bit barbaric in its translation of other languages. Quite frankly, at times we just don’t have the words to accurately describe what it is the other language is trying to convey. 

Let’s look at verses 25-29 in their original language. Verse 25 uses the Hebrew word “chazaq” which translates to rape. Notice that in that passage, when the man rapes the woman, only the man is held accountable. “ Do nothing to the woman; she has committed no sin deserving death” 

HOWEVER, in the verse you pointed out, the Hebrew words that the translation you chose translated as rape are “taphas” and”shakab.” Please note that NEITHER of those words actually translates to the English verb of rape. (The verb specifically used is “shakab” which simply means to lie down (sexually). Also, the verb used for “if a man ___ a virgin” is”pathah” which means entice. 

Therefore,the passage is really about a man seducing a virgin and having sex with her. If you seduce a virgin and have sex with her, you should marry her.

 Edit: The marriage can be refused on the woman’s side, in which case the man would simply pay the hefty fine. (Ex. 22:16-17). As the woman’s revenge, if she does choose to marry  him, he is not allowed to divorce her. 

Extra evidence: in the other places in the Bible where they talk about rape, another verb—which actually translates as “rape” is used. This verb is NOT used in 28-29.

Lastly, you may note that other translations do NOT translate this particular verse as rape. (I will admit that the NIV also translates it as rape.)